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Edit: Just thought I might add that anybody who thinks there is not sufficient evidence to say that the holocaust occured is having their perception clouded by their prejudice.
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I am trying to get my head around his thinking. He seems to be saying that if Germany was responsible for the Holocaust, they should be responsible for returning the Jews to their homes in Europe. The other side of his argument is that Palestine bears all of the losses for the creation of Israel, therefore there must not have been a Holocaust.
I find that the first premise has some logic to it, but I can't see how the second premise is a logical extention of the first.
Great find, Pacifier and thanks for sharing it with us.