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Originally Posted by dksuddeth
"The right. . . of bearing arms for a lawful purpose. . . is not a right granted by the Constitution.
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You quote this in the same thread that you're telling me the 2nd amendment gives you the right to a gun?
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Neither is it in any manner dependent on that instrument for its existence.
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Again, this bears my reasoning out. The 2nd does NOT give you the right to have a gun, but neither does it take that right away.
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The second amendment declares that it shall not be infringed; but this. . . means no more than it shall not be infringed by Congress
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It's too late to bother looking up later case law but I'm pretty confident that some judge somewhere has reversed this section. The 2nd goes farther than that, as distinguished from the 1st, which says "CONGRESS shall make no law. . . " The 2nd does not say anything about congress, merely that the right shall not be infringed. Since this is distinct from the 1st's mention of congress, it should be interpreted to mean the right shall not be infringed by anyone, not just congress.
Your entire post pretty much proved what I've been saying, and failed to address the fact that the 2nd amendment is one sentence, with a conditional clause preceeding the right that it defines. You still haven't gotten away from that pesky militia bit. . .