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Originally Posted by Jimellow
I avoided taking a stance on this issue intentionally and instead asked a fair question. As for PCL-R or DSM; I have no idea what either are, which would tie into me asking my original question in the first place.
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Isn't the PCL-R a type of check-list they have for suspected sociopaths and/or psychopaths? It's kind of like the checklist they give us for new foster placements - you rate the child's behavior on a scale for each of about 70 questions and they determine if there's reason for diagnosis and further testing. I don't know if that's actually how they diagnose a psychosis or not. (Which I assume is what the DSM is for - I can't recall what the acronym stands for but I know it's a reference guide about mental illnesses.) Either way, does it really matter? Yes, something in the guy's head has to be off chemically for him to have experienced the desire to act the way he did in the first place. Apparently he'd been obsessing about it for some time. Freud would have a field day. But I think legally they have to prove he was incapable of knowing right from wrong. If they decide he lost his ability to know that what he was doing was wrong (which seems obvious to me that he did NOT because he went to lengths to hide his crime) then he's legally insane. I'm no expert, but that's my understanding. I'd welcome correction if I'm wrong, though.