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Originally Posted by politicophile
That's great. However, I am not claiming any sort of immunity from fallacious reasoning for social conservatives. You will have to explain the relevance of this point to your argument, as I see no connection. If slippery slope arguments were wrong when conservatives used them, why would they suddenly be right now?
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If slippery slope arguments were right for conservatives then, why would they be wrong now?
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Originally Posted by politicophile
Yeah, you keep saying that the government is "[charging] domestic crimes as acts of terrorism", but I don't know where you're getting that from. They are using a law that is primarily intended to fight terrorists, but it doesn't automatically follow that all prosecutions under the Act are accusations of terrorism!
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an act written, designed, and even labeled as a law/tool to fight terrorism is used to fight crimes that were always considered 'domestic', and you don't follow how that now makes formerly domestic crimes acts of terrorism?
what part of this are you purposefully not following?