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					Originally Posted by Jack1.0
					
				 
				My question and the intent of my earlier post is, "Did the 16 year old really consent?" The only thing I see in the article above is that the man was “convicted of voluntary oral copulation with a minor of the age of 16 or 17.” This does not mean that the girl consented. It means she couldn’t prove  in court that she did not consent, or that a plea bargain was reached for a lesser offense. 
			
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 Or it could mean she did consent.
Funny how you state that we do not have all the factas, yet you somehow 
know:
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				It means she couldn’t prove  in court that she did not consent, or that a plea bargain was reached for a lesser offense.
			
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