My question and the intent of my earlier post is, "Did the 16 year old really consent?" The only thing I see in the article above is that the man was “convicted of voluntary oral copulation with a minor of the age of 16 or 17.” This does not mean that the girl consented. It means she couldn’t prove in court that she did not consent, or that a plea bargain was reached for a lesser offense. Is it possible that the man in this case manipulated her, conditioned her, and preyed upon her? Do we really know all the facts? (I’m sure the news reports have been completely fair and factual. </Sarcasm off>)
I know I’m a little off topic from the original question but I feel strongly about this and I think that we are far to quick to assume, in this and simiar situations, that intercourse was consensual without even trying to get the facts. It sounds a little too much like, “She was asking for it.”
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Jack1.0
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I've learned to embrace my inner Geek.
I haven't found anything else I'm good at.
Last edited by Jack1.0; 03-09-2006 at 07:25 AM..
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