Nimetic

It seems to me that a number of people have taken an overly simplistic view here.

My key issues are

a) A written piece of paper describing sexual activities is not evidence
of anything. It may simply be a fantasy. Fantasy does not equal
reality. Many people write erotic stories and/or enjoy describing
situations which never occur - and which they have no intention
of actually participating in.

b) If the woman went along with one or more of his fantasies, or shared
them, this too is ok.

c) Neither of the first two points are relevant to whether or not he raped
her (in my mind). If he raped her or assaulted her, that is a crime
pure and simple. The document is not relevant.

d) If she signed this... I doubt that it means anything. I don't know
law, but my understanding is that there are normally rights which
cannot be simply signed away. And signing under duress -
I'd assume that would make it unenforceable also.

(On the other hand, if such a document was enforceable in this
location - then it'd be grounds for some political lobbying. I'm saying
that the law should not allow slavery, which is what this would be)


To recap. This document seems irrelevant to the case. The moral question, in my view, is whether he raped and/or assaulted his wife. By this I mean, did he have sex with her or hurt her in a matter that she did not consent to at the time.

And... if she did not consent... did she make him aware of this?