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Originally Posted by asaris
The reason the first being to sin could sin was because he, and all beings with free will, had two inclinations, one towards the good in itself, and one towards the good for him. He got confused, and desired his own good over the good in itself, and so sinned. How's that?
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The problem I see with that is twofold:
1) adam didn't sin, Eve did. Your premise is inaccurate, but I read it as your reasoning for why Eve may have sinned originally to move on to
2) "all beings with free will" do not have two inclinations. To argue that would be to argue that the deity, also a being with free will, has two inclinations--one to do its own will and one to go against its own will.
As far as I've been able to take it, that's not logically possible.
I'd have to go back to some church history books to see the lineage, but I'm wagering off-hand that the notion humans have free will, in the sense that they have two sets of inclinations to choose from, crept into some doctrines around the same time rationalism took hold.
I don't know the exact point of departure, but the early churches definately taught and believed that humans had no other kind of will other than to sin unless they were prevented from doing so by the deity. And the notion that one could have two sets of inclincations and must choose between the two on a daily or individual incident (case-by-case) would contradict many of the points the figurehead of the christian religion made about serving two masters simultaneously.