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Originally Posted by irateplatypus
i bet there is something substantial behind the theory... but i don't think i understand the method. why wouldn't the partisan backers respond very differently to the mere mention of the candidates? each name must have a host of memories associated with it, conceptions that may have been based on very rational decisions made long ago. how can the conductors of the study be sure the test subjects are reacting solely to the test-stimulus and not the years of prior political involvement?
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If you recall, Irate, they also used a well known name, "Tom Hanks", who to my knowledge has expressed no political affiliation of any kind. The same results occured. Roachboy is correct in his statement in the other topic similar to this that we can't judge the results until the research paper is published.