Nimetic

If a drunk woman gives consent and it doesn't count because she was intoxicated and had diminished responsibility - then it follows that that a drunk man who has sex with her while suffering from similar mental impairment is similarly not responsible

This seems particularly clear if the hypothetical drunk man has not used force and believed that he had received valid consent.

I'm 100% supportive of the the view that taking advantage of an drunk woman is immoral. I'm just saying that one of the arguments being used here cuts both ways.

This can be recitified I think if we differentiate between different levels of intoxication...