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Old 11-07-2005, 09:48 AM   #7 (permalink)
ehh19
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Is it just by default, then, that a state of nature has existed? Is it then because men have been responsible for law that it must have been the default while they thought up law? I guess I'm trying to ask WHY he thinks it HAS and DOES exist, specifically. Why can't it be that the man was always in a state of self-law (or is that just naming 'state of nature' something different). Pretty much I guess what I really would like to know is what premise he has to support that it DOES and HAS existed.
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