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Originally Posted by brian1975
no matter what i say i will be wrong. so yes you are right.
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Quote:
Originally Posted by guccilvr
If they are a level I offender and the offense wasn't with a blood relative and the mother has no objections, then the father can have rights to his child. If the offense was an incest type offense, then the court would need to use it's discretion based on time served, age of victim, and length of non-reoffense and parole/probation status/record.
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Thank you for raising the demeanor the discussion again, but should we include this level I status in other civil/criminal decisions? At the point his children were seized, he hadn't commited an additional crime. Can we use level I status for something like sodomy of human remains (necrophilia) to (via the judiciary) prevent them from working at a mortuary? I have a feeling that the company would refuse employment, but if they did not -- should the legal system have the right to remove him? It seems analagous to this situation, and I'm curious how far you'd allow the "removal of rights" to go..