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I'd say the basis is a simple matter of linguistics. Even in the modern world, our best scholars and liguists do not always translate items 100% correctly (especially with conveyance of meaning or colloquial language). It can be posited, then, that centuries ago the same could be said. Therefore translations from greek and hebrew would not be 100% correct. Also, extremely old sections of the old testament were likely to have been written in a language other than those two. Potential additional translation. Also, most modern English bibles are written in English that either does not have the same meanings as it may have hundreds of years ago, or has been rewritten in modern English, again offering the possibilty of changes in meaning.
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