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Originally Posted by pan6467
I'm sorry the Constitution and the Amendments that follow guarantee EVERY CITIZEN the right to vote.....
Once you start adding requirements such as "literacy tests", you open the floodgates. Then you start saying only taxpayers, then only land owners, then grandfather clauses, then only people who pay this much or more in taxes, and so on.
The poor and underpriveleged will revolt, and unlike the poster above I wouldn't be so sure that they would just burn down their own buildings.... and when the vast majority of our military and police come from the poorer sections....
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False. The Constitution prevents you from barring someone from voting because of:
-Their race
-Their previous condition of servitude
-Their gender
-Their failure to pay a poll tax
-Their age, if it is 18 or greater
If the country, or a state, decided to prevent people from voting for a different reason than the ones listed above, it would only be unconstitutional if the courts decided it violated Amendment 14. Otherwise, I don't see how it could be overturned.
If you want to bring the Voting Rights Act of 1965 and other legislation into it as well, though... things turn out differently.
I also wanted to say that the slippery slope argument above was very funny. "If you start requiring literacy as a qualification for voting, there will be a violent revolution!"
