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Originally Posted by roachboy
do you really think that anything not explicitly accounted for in a late 18th century document is necessarily unconstitutional? on what basis?
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Your gratuitous attempt at dimishing this document as redundant due to its age not withstanding
Absolutely, I base this on the mechanism provided for in this constitution to acocunt for the changes if its subjects, circumstances, and needs.
A mechanism which lately has been ignored, since a fiat around it has been secured.
That fiat involves judges legislating from the bench such novelties as interstate commerce which can include non commercial activity conducted within a single states borders and public use to include transfer of property to a private developer who paid more to your campaign.
Do people really think this is the right way to do it?
I don't, but that's just on JAFO's perspective.
-bear