I think the article rightly points out a lot of the flaws in the study, not to mention interpretation of the study. I thought this sentence was interesting, though:
Quote:
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"Regardless of whether the men were gay, straight or bisexual, they showed about four times more arousal" to one sex or the other, said Gerulf Rieger, a graduate psychology student at Northwestern and the study's lead author."
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If they're showing four times as much to one or the other, that presumes that they must be showing at least
some arousal to the non-preferred sex; I know shit about statistics, but if you're showing 4X=Y, doesn't X have to be nonzero for Y to be nonzero? Doesn't that sort of suggest the old assertion that everyone's bisexual to some extent - even just a leeeetle - rather than that people fall into a strictly binary pattern?
I'd be interested to see what fMRI studies showed - you'd think that would capture a more complex picture than just whether your dick gets hard or not.