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Originally Posted by j8ear
I wonder how it would be possible for a state government to restrict a local governments application of a permissable constitutional privledge?
You really think that poster had an excellent at bat? A tiny sampling of a rather ominous decision resulting in an inaccurate conclusion of the entire opinion.
-bear
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If I erred in my conclusion, I appear to be in good company.
Time magazine went into some detail about this particular case two or three issues back. My copy has long since gone into the trash, but I'll try to find something online. If I recall, the issue wasn't specifically about increasing the tax base, but to fulfill a promise made to support a large influx of employees.
Perhaps, while I do that, you can clarify your position by providing links to your claims?