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I do not get from the first post that he was presuposing this was about equality in a legal sense.
If anything, it seemed rather open ended.
As I understand the question, it is meaningless without a context.
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"Of all tyrannies, a tyranny exercised for the good of its victims may be the most oppressive. It may be better to live under robber barons than under omnipotent moral busybodies. The robber baron's cruelty may sometimes sleep, his cupidity may at some point be satiated; but those who torment us for our own good will torment us without end, for they do so with the approval of their own conscience." – C. S. Lewis
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