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Originally Posted by MrSelfDestruct
I've drawn a few conclusions and found myself left with many more questions than answers...
After researching, I am left with more questions than answers. Here are some of the major ones, with speculation and comments. I am asking these after drawing the conclusion that it was an intentional attack and that no misidentification occured.
-What did Israel have to gain by attacking an unarmed ship of their strongest diplomatic ally?
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I am hazy on details, although when I have more time, I can look them up. What was alleged by some of the officers was that this SURVEILLANCE SHIP observed some actions on the part of Israel that Israel very much wanted to keep from becoming public.
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Taking a step backwards into a more general question, why would someone attack a ship during a time of war? Possibilities include:
--termination of the target's nonagressive activities (this seems to be the only possibility, as the Liberty was monitoring communications at the time and none of the other strategic motivations make sense.)
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Yep.
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The answer with which I am most comfortable is that this is a real-life case of the cliché from war movies of a crazed rogue commander acting on his own paranoia and delusion.
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Nope.
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-Why did the United States Government act to cover up the incident?
This is the only question that I can answer with relative confidence. The most likely answer is that they did not want to turn public sentiment against Israel. At the time, we had one strong ally in the Middle East, an area in which it is advantageous to have allies, and we did not want to risk losing that ally due to a lack of public support. I can't envision any other reason for us to cover up such an atrocity; perhaps someone else can come up with something (preferably not relying on paranoid visions of a Zionist world government.)
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Nice deductive reasoning.
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The last of the three I'm going to throw down is a multi-part question
-Where in the chain of command did the order to attack originate, and how did this commander convince dozens of military personnel to launch an attack on hundreds of a friendly nation's servicemen and tens of millioins of dollars of equipment owned by that nation?
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By giving the order.
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The last possiblity I can think of at the moment is that a person with access to the military units involved (maybe an extremist from an intelligence service psy ops division,) was able to use some sort of drug-induced brainwashing to convince the attackers that they had not been observing a US ship, but rather a disguised enemy. The use of psychoactive drugs in military operations goes back decades, with some notable examples being the testing of extremely high doses of LSD on British troops (some disturbing videos of the results have been made public,) the use of fear-inhibiting drugs on WWII Japanese kamikaze pilots, and various tests of judgement-altering substances by US intelligence services.
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No. As I said, it was deliberate.