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Originally Posted by Gilda
I'm not a lawyer, so I have to ask, does lack of consent equal opposition? Does a law that requires DCF not to consent to something mean that they are required to oppose it? In terms of language by itself, they're two different things, but it may be that in legal terms they mean the same thing. Anyone know for sure?
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I don't know it either, but if I were the DCF lawyers that's the kind of interpretative gray area that I'd by covering my butt against.
Like Mal found, as her guardian technically they have to consent for her to have an abortion, but because of the injuction based on the privacy laws it's not required, which leaves us back where we started and I'm still of a mind that as that lawyer I'd be stopping her to keep it from coming back to bite me later on.
In a situation like this regardless of what they do SOMEBODY is going to be really upset.