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Originally Posted by Pacifier
It is also a FACT that a lot of nations with strict gun laws have far less crimes than the US. see germany for example.
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You have a logical fallacy here. Your argument is that because a country has strict gun control laws, they have less crime. Do you have some evidence of causality? Why should Germany's crime rate for crimes not involving guns be lower than the same crime rate in the US if it's the scarcity of guns that's the issue that prevents crime? If Germany's simple assault rate is far lower than the US's simple assault rate, how is that connected to Germany's gun laws? If Germany has a lower vehicular homicide rate than the US, how is that connected to the gun control laws? And if Germany's crime rates for crimes not involving guns is lower than the US crime rate for crimes not involving guns, then if the gun control laws were equal, wouldn't Germany still have a lower rate of crimes involving guns than the US does, since their society has far less crime overall?
You seem to equate "less guns=less crime". That's simply not based upon reality.