Well I live in a homosexually progressive area. Not only do I live in california, but I live in an area that has many gay couples. Some of my wife and my friends are openly gay. Despite my religious upbringing, I could never say that these people deserve anything less than equal rights in every sense. We are in the beginnings of the movement to normalize homosexuality socially and legally. I happen to see those who voted against gay equality under the law as being bigoted. I see this as being very similar to racial bigotry.
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After all, in most of the cases we're talking about, the "second partner" is alienable PROPERTY, not a legally recognized individual.
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Rubbish. Children do have some rights that animals and objects do not have. Children are not property unless we are talking about illegal slave trading. Does that apply to gay couples? Both members of a marriage are equal unless otherwise stipulated. My wife and I are 100% equal in our marriage, legally and otherwise. In a gay relationship no member is property. If the person is dead or it we are talking about an animal (non-human) or an object, then the other party is property. You cannot marry property.
The legal rights of the deceased are greatly limited (and can be compared to those of an animal actually). A dog cannot legally own a human, whether the ownership is total or partial. If a marriage of human and animal (illegal as of right now) were hypothetically legal, then the animal would be allowed many rights, but the animal could not have the cognitive abilities to raise a human child. The dog (using dog as an example) could not teach the child social skills or real world lessons besides that which a dog knows. What the dog knows is limited to what it is trained to do and what is inate. What the dog can be trained to do is at a maximum the ability to keep the child from immediate danger. An animal cannot legally own property. Our constitution and amendments are here for the rights of people.
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As for owning property, have you ever heard of an "estate"?
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Nope. I'm a moron!
The nature and extent of an owner's rights with respect to land or other property is an estate. It has no bearing on this at all.
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And does death render a parent no longer a parent? Legal causes of action routinely survive the death of a party, yes?
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The dead person is not allowed to make any legal decisions after he or she dies (with the exception of recessitation). That's rather obvious. Consent is given before the death. If the person consents to necrophilia before death, that's up to a judge. If the person has dies and did not stipulate any such arrangement, then it is illegal.