Let me walk you through my thought process, and perhaps you can point out where I'm going wrong.
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I'd say by definition, the insane do not choose their beliefs.
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So according to this statement. The sane choose their beliefs, and the insane do not.
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I'm satisfied with current psychological definitions of insanity. I'm not a professional psychologist. I am also aware that insanity is a culturally defined parameter. So I am talking about definitions of insanity that are culturally appropriate to the case in question.
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According to this statement, sanity/insanity is a culturally defined parameter.
So if sanity can be used to describe which people choose their beliefs and which do not, and if sanity is a culturally decided phenomenon, then why doesn't it follow that choice in belief is not also a culturally decided phenomenon.
There must be a link here that I'm missing.