Thread: Interpretation
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Old 10-26-2004, 09:00 PM   #13 (permalink)
martinguerre
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Quote:
Originally Posted by JJRousseau
Not in the paragraph I was referring to...
You quoted:

Quote:
Around the end of the first millenium, the orthodox churches split from the RCC (or the other way around), mostly because the orthodox thought that the bishop of Rome was too powerful. .
The east/west split often is traced to a dispute over Bishop Ignatius in 869 AD, and fully schisming in 1472 with the East repudiating the Council of Florence.

Luther did not make the quote you refer to until 1522. Asaris might want to revise the date at which he places the east/west schism...but he wasn't referring to the Reformation.
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