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xepherys · 10-20-2004, 08:52 PM

Hmmm, there seem to be two approaches to this that have been semi-overlooked, and both disprove this (AFAICT):

1/infinity IS NOT a real number because infinity is not a real number. If this is the case, you cannot logically prove the theory using a non-existing number (not sure why "i" is used...)

1/infinity IS a real number because it has SOME positive value (however infintesimally small). If this is true, and it has value, then 1.0 != 0.9r but rather 1.0 = 0.9r + 1/infinity, whatever value that may be.

In either case it's a quirk of human logistics rather than mathematical fact.

10-20-2004, 08:52 PM	#53 (permalink)
xepherys <3 TFP Location: 17TLH2445607250	Hmmm, there seem to be two approaches to this that have been semi-overlooked, and both disprove this (AFAICT): 1/infinity IS NOT a real number because infinity is not a real number. If this is the case, you cannot logically prove the theory using a non-existing number (not sure why "i" is used...) 1/infinity IS a real number because it has SOME positive value (however infintesimally small). If this is true, and it has value, then 1.0 != 0.9r but rather 1.0 = 0.9r + 1/infinity, whatever value that may be. In either case it's a quirk of human logistics rather than mathematical fact.