"Play would have had to have" seems like it would be a complete sentence as long as the preceding sentence specified what the subject of the sentence was. But I'm not 100% certain about that one.
As for the other stuff, I think KnifeMissle was on the right track, but his explanation is still a little sketchy. I don't know the proper terms for this in English, but in French, there is a past tense (passe compose or imparfait) and another past tense that happens before the regular one (plus-que-parfait).
For instance:
If I want to say that something simply happened in the past, I would say (and I'll use your example)...
Play would have had to smoke pot.
BUT, if I wanted to say the same thing AND IT HAD TO HAPPEN BEFORE SOME OTHER SPECIFIED POINT IN THE PAST, it would be...
Play would have had to have smoked pot [...to do whatever it is that he did in the past].
Does that make more sense now?
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