Quote:
Originally posted by John Henry
I want, if possible, to rearrange this equation in terms of C:
A = B * (1+C)^D - E * ((1+C)^D-1) / C
I've got a feeling it can't be done (I should really be able to tell, with an A-level in maths and an MPhys) so at the moment I'm evaluating it with numerical methods, but that's slow. I was just wondering if there were any mathematical geniuses out there who might know a way to do it, or could at least confirm my fears.
I had wondered about using a substitution of (1+C)^D=F, giving
C=F^(1/D)-1
and
A=BF - EF/C - E
then multiplying through by F and rearranging to get a quadratic, then solving that using what my maths teacher used to call "The Equation", giving:
F=(E/C-A)/(E/C+E)
then rearranging, subbing C back in and multiplying through by C, leaving us with:
(E+BC)(C+C^2)^D-AC+E=0
And that's as far as I can go. Don't know if this is solvable from here. My gf just suggested that integration might help (0 to D dC), but I can't work it out. Also, I don't know if I've worked it out properly so far as my algebra is often dodgy.
Thanks in advance for any help you can provide, people.
|
I just ran it through TI89's SOLVE operation to solve for C and it couldn't solve for C....it output the following:
(cb-e)*(c+1)^d-ca+e=0
__________________
If the money was right, the timing was right, and it was done in a way that made me comfortable, you BET I'd do it!! But what're the odds of THAT happening?
|