You're the umpire....

[gov135]

... what do you do?
Below are several not-so-common baseball scenarios. You give the correct ruling.

NOTE: This is just for fun. If you get them all wrong this doesn't mean you know one more or less thing than anyone else. As you'll see, these are somewhat arcane.

I'll post the answers in a few days.

O.K., I updated with answers. Alot of people seemed to enjoy this, so I may do it again.

1.) You hit a pop-up to the first-base side. The first baseman drifts to the dugout, makes the catch, then extends his arm to the dugout roof to prevent himself from falling. The ball pops out of his glove and into the stands. Are you out?
No - you are not out. Rule 2.00- If a fielder drops the ball, previously considered a catch, after making contact with the dugout or the wall, it is not a catch. If I had given you the same scenario, except the caught ball was dropped over the fence, the ruling would have been home run.

2.) The bases are loaded, with noone out. You are on second base. The batter hits a hard grounder towards the shortstop. Realizing that the ball represents an easy double play, you deliberately let the ball hit you, thinking one out is better than two. What call will the umpire make?
Rule 7.09 - You are out. The batter, if the umpire feels you deliberately let the ball hit you, is also called out. Double play. It is interesting to note that Jackie Robinson was noted for getting away with this manuever - he was a good actor.

3.) You are standing on first base, and get a steal sign. Anticipating the pitchers throw, you break for second. But the pitcher throws to first instead of going home. However, you beat the throw from the first basemen when it sails into left field. Do you get credit for a stolen base?
No. Error on the first baseman gets you to second. If the first baseman threw you out, you would get credit for an attempted steal, however.

4.) You are the umpire. It is the sixth inning of a nite game, and the Aeros are leading the Sluggers 3-1. Suddenly, the city experiences a blackout, and power is not restored. Your ruling?
Rule 4.12. Games can not be declared official due to blackout. The game is suspended. Several of you correctly used the rain-out rule, but blackouts are a different case.

5.) You are the third-base umpire. The Greenjackets are tied with the Scrappers in the bottom of the ninth. A Scrappers base runner is on third with one out. The batter hits a deep sacrifice into left field, easily scoring the runner on third. However, the runner on third leaves before the ball is caught. What, if anything, is your call?
Several of you got close on this one. If there is no appeal from the defensive team, there is no call. Therefore, even if the umpire sees the infraction, no call is made until the fielding team appeals.

93-93-26-23-18

[eyeseepeedude]

1.) yes, as long as he had 'reasonable control' of the ball...
2.) you are out because you didn't avoid the ball (*doing it on purpose gets you out... I've seen it happen*)
3.) yes
4.) continue the game at a later time/date.
5.) the run does not count. The out took place before a legal advance was made. (*he left early and didn't tag up before touching home... *)

[reconmike]

1.if he controlled the ball then it is an out.

2. the ump can call an judgement double play as to you deliberately interfered with the ball.

3. SB

4. After 5 innings it is official

5. as an ump if the other team does not appeal the player leaving early then you do nothing, just like if a player misses a base and it not appealed.

[Bobaphat]

1) Yes, assuming the ball was caught outside of the dugout and the fielder had control.
2) The runner who interfered is out and like reconmike said, the ump can make a judgement call on whether or not it should be ruled a double-play based on intentional interference.
3) Yes, just as you would if the catcher overthrew
4)Aero's win. Same as a rainout, after 5
5)Assuming the outfielder get the ball to third base, the runner is out. You tag up until the ball has been caught, if you leave early its the same as just leaving after the ball left the bat.

[BigBlueWrecking]

1. Same as everyone else. The ump would have to dictate whether he had control.

2. Runner is out. If it is intentional interference, the runner on 1st could be called out, but it is highly unlikely

3. IT could be ruled an error if the official score keeper decided so, but more times than not it will be an SB

4. After 5 it is done

5. Depends on whether they tag the base.

I have a question for some of you. Is it possible to have 4 strikeouts in one half of an inning?

[clockworkgreen]

1) you're OUTTA HERE.
2) you're OUTTA HERE.
3) si
4) game is official after 5, isn't it?
5) if he didn't tag, he's OUTTA HERE.

[BulletBob]

1. Batter is out

2. Base runner at second is out, I believe it becomes a dead ball after that so the bases are still loaded with 1 out.

3. Judgement call, usually a stolen base.

4. Game over, Aeros win

5. Unless the defense actually throws to third base or appeals to third the run scores.

EDIT: Just saw Big Blue's question, yes it is. Catcher can give up a past ball on the third strike, letting a runner get on base by an error but the pitcher is still given a strike out

[Stargazer01]

What set of rules are you using?

MLB, College, High School, Little League?

[Stargazer01]

1) No the B/R is not out. He never had complete control over the ball. Also MLB Rules state that the release of the ball must be completely voluntary.

2) It depends here... 1 - The umpire calls the runner out because he was hit by a fair batted ball. Play is stopped and all runners remain at their bases (dead ball situation) 2 - The umpire rules the runner out and calls he batter out, because in his judgement the runner did so on purpose!

3) No You are not awarded a "stolen" base.

4) The game is completed successfuly and reverts to the score of the last completed inning (the 5th)

5) Unless the defensive appeals the runner not tagging up before the next play, the run is considered scored.

[eyeseepeedude]

Originally posted by BigBlueWrecking
I have a question for some of you. Is it possible to have 4 strikeouts in one half of an inning?

yep... check the game where the Astro's no hit the Yankees... it was done in that game.

[jmf1234]

1. The Batter's out
2. OUT
3. No it wasn't a stolen base
4. Aeros win
5. Safe

[MikeyChalupa]

1) I'd say yes, but it would depend on the amount of time the ball was in the 1B's mitt. Most likely yes, it's an out.

2) Runner is out, effort must be made to avoid the ball.

3) SB, the runner is free to attempt to advance to 3rd on the throwing error, if he makes it, THAT is not a SB.

4) MLB rules are a game is official after 4 1/2 innings, 5 if the home team is behind. In either case, this game is official. IF we're going by MLB rules.

5) The run does not count, unless the runner can make it back to tag third, and then make it to the plate before a fielder steps on 3B. The runner is not automatically out, but most likely will be very soon.

-Mikey

[livingitup101]

1) Has to establish control of the ball.
2)Interference. Could call both and you and the guy running to first out.
3)SB
4)Game over. Aeros win.
5)No call until defensive team throws the ball to 3b.

[gov135]

updated with answers above.

[livingitup101]

Good post Gov135. I enjoyed it.

[warrrreagl]

I love this thread, and it needs a bump.

Question:

Man on first, left-handed pitcher is called for a balk during his attempted pick-off of the runner on first. The pick-off throw goes into right field and the runner goes all the way to third. Does the runner get to stay at third or does he need to go back to second and only advance one base?

[dylanmarsh]

Originally Posted by warrrreagl

I love this thread, and it needs a bump.

Question:

Man on first, left-handed pitcher is called for a balk during his attempted pick-off of the runner on first. The pick-off throw goes into right field and the runner goes all the way to third. Does the runner get to stay at third or does he need to go back to second and only advance one base?

I believe the runner may only advance one base on a balk regardless of what happens to the ball. Case in point: Mendoza during Game 3 of this year's ALCS. Mendoza, remembering he is still being paid by the Yankees, starts into his wind-up then stops, takes his foot off of the rubber and then throws to the plate. The umps called the balk, runners were given one base and no pitch was recorded. Although a bit different, I think warrreagl's scenario would have the same ruling.

[warrrreagl]

Originally Posted by dylanmarsh

I believe the runner may only advance one base on a balk regardless of what happens to the ball. Case in point: Mendoza during Game 3 of this year's ALCS. Mendoza, remembering he is still being paid by the Yankees, starts into his wind-up then stops, takes his foot off of the rubber and then throws to the plate. The umps called the balk, runners were given one base and no pitch was recorded. Although a bit different, I think warrreagl's scenario would have the same ruling.

I looked it up and here's what I found: If a pitcher balks and throws wild, either to a base or to home, a runner or runners may advance beyond the base to which they are entitled to at their own risk.