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ottopilot 03-15-2008 06:14 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by mixedmedia
I think we all understand the meaning of the word 'since.' But there are many ways in which a statement, especially a loaded one, can be interpreted and that's what the rest of us are talking about.
By arguing the literal use of "since", it allows for smarmy rationalization and plausible denial of the statement's implied meaning.

Willravel 03-15-2008 08:39 AM
The "implication" is a subjective interpretation. The objective meaning is clear.

Fotzlid 03-15-2008 08:47 AM
This thread reminds me of the "definition of is" issue from a number of years back.

Quote:
"It depends on what the meaning of the word 'is' is. If the--if he--if 'is' means is and never has been, that is not--that is one thing. If it means there is none, that was a completely true statement....Now, if someone had asked me on that day, are you having any kind of sexual relations with Ms. Lewinsky, that is, asked me a question in the present tense, I would have said no. And it would have been completely true."

mixedmedia 03-15-2008 09:14 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by willravel
The "implication" is a subjective interpretation. The objective meaning is clear.
The objective meaning is clear only in a totally objective (ie, unrealistic) scenario. I've read plenty of Rekna's writing here and I've no reason to believe that Rekna meant the statement in a literally objective sense. And I've certainly no expectation for anyone to take it as such. Your argument is bordering on the pedantic.

Willravel 03-15-2008 09:20 AM
You can't justify projecting your unsupportable interpretation on Rekna. My argument is somewhat pedantic, but it's still correct.

mixedmedia 03-15-2008 09:27 AM
The interpretation is totally supportable as is evidenced by the majority of reactions to it here, not to mention the reactions that prompted the OP. And I'm not trying to pin anything on Rekna. I'm saying that he/she is not in more of an objective bubble than anyone else.


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