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Anyone else here think this correlation (gun control) implying causation (crime) is a very weak one? By the same logic, couldn't I imply that lack of gun control is why there are so many gun murders in the US?
Seretogis argues that we need to look at the details sorrounding the statistics being thrown around concerning gun related deaths in America. How come we don't ask the same questions given the 3 percent rise in England this year? Is it really fair that we automatically assume it is because of gun control and that's it? Couldn't there conceivably be a million other reasons that also contributed to the increase?
I'm sorry, but such a seemingly weak connection only leads me to believe that the purpose of this thread has little to do with England's crime problem, but more as a means to advocate gun ownership in the US. Why didn't you just say that?
While you're all here, though, I'd love to ask a question. If mass gun ownership meant a safer society, that would make the US one of the safest nations in the world. How come it isn't?
SLM3
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