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Originally Posted by analog
Technically, every time a woman has sex with a man who is impaired, she is "raping" him, because impairment negates the ability to consent.
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"The World According to Garp"?
But everyone seems to be missing the point/definition. Never mind all the bruhaha about "erection" and all that "sexual arousal" stuff.
If a woman shoves an object up a man's bum (without his consent) - she's just raped him. Pure and simple.
ANSWER: Yes. A woman can rape a man.