Nimetic

Here's the context....

I was just reading through a (TFP) thread that delved into the details of what consitutes rape. The usual stuff - ie did she resist, did she say no, when did she say no, was it "in" already etc.

Then I found myself on this thread.

Now my question is this. If kissing is more intimate than "rape" - then why is the legal and social stigma attached to penetrative sex (ok that's an ugly description, but you need to know what I mean) - and not to kissing without consent. Or to the continuation of a kiss, without consent.

I'm in a light-hearted mood, but there's some seriousness to this also. Surely it's not consistent in the modern world (forget tradition) to say that kisses are more intimate - but that vaginal sex is more significant legally.