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Originally Posted by guccilvr
It seems to me that this would be a very valid defense in a trial. You know that the defense lawyers would say something similar to this as it would be hard to tell when the actual "rape" occured considering there was already consentual penetration.
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I would hope that it would be pretty obvious that the rape occurred in the interval of time after the party in question withdrew their consent and before the intercourse ended. In any case, the laws in question would seem to clarify this point.