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Originally Posted by Poppinjay
That would be a red herring. The judge gave his donation before the 2004 presidential election. So he is not "giving" money. He gave money. So should all past donations be held as evidence exposing a bias even if an organizations current campaign is a different one?
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Not in most cases, but if that organization was specifically singling me out and calling me a crook by name and the judge in my case has given financial support to them then I would be concerned.
I would probably not ask for the judge to recuse himself because I think he would most likely go out of his way and maybe go a little overboard to show that he is impartial which might benefit me at trial.
