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Old 10-18-2005, 07:39 PM   #201 (permalink)
Mantus
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Quote:
Originally Posted by asaris
But there's no difference between my knowledge and the knowledge of an omniscient being.
Human beings cannot obtain pure knowledge. All our knowledge is based on faith.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Francisco
Well it seems to be your turn to explain what your remark means, or why it's accurate. I would say it's accurate only if you are in fact the omniscient being that we have so far been treating as a hypothetical entity, OR if he's sharing his knowledge with you in some fashion.
Omniscience is the concept of (knowledge)x(infinity) or (knowledge)x(everything). While it seems simple enough on the surface (like freewill or purpose) the fact is that omniscience is a rather abstract concept. How can any one being have full knowledge of anything that can or could happen? Even if find a way store all this information sift thought and access it all. The only real possibility for omniscience would be total knowledge, which would require the universe to be finite, yet if knowledge is finite then it's based on faith. In this case, the omniscient being would have faith that his sum of knowledge equals to the sum of all events in the universe. Omniscience is quite absurd.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Francisco
Because if the omniscient person knows it's going to happen, then it's going to happen. He's not forcing you to do it. He just knows that you cannot NOT do it - you cannot do otherwise and you won't do otherwise. Neither can't or won't is caused by him. We deduce this from knowing (or proposing in this instance) that he's omniscient. We don't have to know how he knows these things, what makes him certain, what other forces are involved, etc., to make this deduction.

Taking him out of the equation takes the unknown cause of his certainty out of the equation. Without that certainty, saying "if you can't do something, you won't," is still logically correct. Saying "if you won't, you can't," is not logically correct.
Something doesn't seem right here. You say the equasion changes. Yet the only changes I see are those in gramar. One's desicion making process is not being effected by an omniscient being. The only difference is that someone/thing knows the choice you will make but that fact is not a not a causal effect. Like I said earlier, I just do see how the process gets rigged against a free choice with the introduction of omniscience.

Last edited by Mantus; 10-18-2005 at 07:51 PM..
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