So if homosexuality is defined by a sexual act (homosexual), then is heterosexuality also defined by a sexual act (heterosexual)?
What if you haven't had sex yet? Does that make one asexual? I guess all those abstaining couples can't be considered heterosexual then and therefore not entitled to heterosexual benefits.
So if a homosexual platonic couple want to get married then they should be able to then because as long as they're not having sex then they're not gay. Right?
I still don't see how homosexuality has led to pedopheplia or molestation. In fact, aren't most committers of pedophelia and molestation fathers, uncles, and *gasp* priests! Does that mean they are all gay???? I guess the Catholic Church has a really big problem then.
Last edited by jorgelito; 02-02-2005 at 01:08 AM..
Reason: grammar
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