the nclex-style question thread.

#1. The rest are stereotypes. Paraphilias are DSM diagnoses. Like frotteury, w00t.

 

You have a DSM IV? Someone told me they took frotteurism out of the latest edition. Said now it's used to refer to "consensual" contact. Wouldn't that just be dry humping, in public I guess? I thought the whole point of frottage was to seek sexual arousal by pretending to "accidentally" touch, in a sexual nature, a stranger in a public place.

 

DSM IV and IV TR. They're lumping them all into paraphilias, kinda like the autism spectrum disorders. Frotteurism is kinda like dry humping, but the gratification comes from not knowing the person and them not realizing what's happening. There's a compulsory component, too

 

Well that sounds better sound "a consensual act." I have a DSM IIIR packed away somewhere, didn't pack it.

You never know because like anything else you can have all the books you want and all the degrees imaginable on your wall but whatever your core beliefs are most people will throw away the book and go with what they personally "feel" is correct. I used to worked with a sex abuse counselor who kept an old DSM III (maybe II) on his desk because it still listed any and all Homo or Bi sexual activity as being deviant. His position was and I'm certain still is "d'em homo's can be cured by hand of God."

My kid had a science teacher in 9th grade who kept a little figurine of Jesus riding a dinosaur so when kids asked "is that possible?" He could tell them "of course....." My kid came home with all kinds of odd stories about him.

 

The correct answer is, indeed, #1.

 

I'd go for 1 and 2.

 

This one isn't select all that apply. You just choose one.

 

Although I do believe legally the doctor has the ultimate responsibility for the patients care I'll go with #2 here. Mainly due to the wording of the question.

 

If I can only choose 1, I go with #1. The nurse advised the doctor and he/she made an informed decision.

 

The correct answer is actually #2. If a nurse questions a doctor's decision and believes that there is a risk of death or serious injury, she must show due diligence in making sure that the client is receiving proper care or he/she can be held legally liable. Let alone ethically liable. In a hospital setting, this would mean reporting concerns to the charge nurse on the unit who would then confer with hospital administration. (at least, that's the way it works in de text books) I like the idea of having that backup.

I have an exam tonight and one of the subjects is drug interactions. I know the answer to this question, but it's driving me a little crazy...grasping the concept.

Ack!

 

That's the term I couldn't come up with in my tiny brain- Charge Nurse.

As for the question at hand I'll go with door number two. Solely because it could be Rx'ed with the intention of it slowing the metabolism which would be the reaction or benefit which was intended. Or it could be detrimental for a number of reasons i.e. slowed it more or less then intended. Or it could do so unexpectedly, that might be rare with all the Pharm. computer Rx interactions programs and software but I guess it could happen.

 

Potentiative, I think, but it depends on if you wanted the bp to be metabolized longer. I'm guessing no, so I'd go with detrimental.
That's a hard one.

 

Yeah I flipped a coin.

Of course in my opinion these question should be hard. I'd like to know the health care professionals providing me with care are well trained and educated. Even if I'm not.